Born’s statistical interpretation
of wave function says that: ${{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx$ is the
probability that the particle will be found at a coordinate between x and x+dx at time t.
Consequently, the total probability
of finding the particle somewhere
should be equal to 1. Referring to
the total probability for continuous distributions: $\int\limits_{-\infty
}^{\infty }{\rho (x)dx}=1$ (please see Equation (8.10) in my previous post),
the integral of ${{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx$ must be equal to 1:
$\int\limits_{-\infty
}^{\infty }{{{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx=1}$ (9.1)
The
wave function $\Psi (x,t)$ is a solution of Schrödinger equation:
$i\hbar
\frac{\partial \Psi }{\partial t}=-\frac{\hbar }{2m}\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}\Psi
}{\partial {{x}^{2}}}+V\Psi$
(9.2)
And also, $A\Psi (x,t)$ is a
solution of equation (9.2), where A
is any (complex) constant. Since the condition in equation (9.1) has to be
satisfied, we have to normalize the
wave function to find this multiplicative constant. Please note that the wave
function $\Psi (x,t)$ must go to
zero as |x|→∞, this physically
realizable states correspond to the ‘square-integrable’ solutions to
Schrödinger’s equation.
Now, we are going to proof that a
normalized wave function stays normalized for all future time, i.e. the
normalization of the wave function is preserved.
Straightforwardly, by taking
the first order derivative of
the term on the left hand side of equation (9.1) with respect to time t, we obtain:
$\frac{d}{dt}\int\limits_{-\infty
}^{\infty }{{{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx}=\int\limits_{-\infty }^{\infty
}{\frac{\partial }{\partial t}{{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx}$ (9.3)
The wave function $\Psi (x,t)$
is a
function of place x as well as time t, therefore we take the partial
derivative of the integrand on the right hand side of equation (9.3). Working out further
the integrand on the right hand side of equation (9.3) with the help of product
rule, we obtain:
$\frac{\partial }{\partial t}$|Ψ|2
= $\frac{\partial }{\partial t}$(Ψ*Ψ) = Ψ*$\frac{\partial
\Psi }{\partial t}$ + $\frac{\partial {{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial t}$Ψ (9.4)
Taking the complex conjugate of Schrödinger equation (9.2):
$\frac{\partial
{{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial t}=-\frac{i\hbar }{2m}\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}{{\Psi
}^{*}}}{\partial {{x}^{2}}}+\frac{i}{\hbar }V{{\Psi }^{*}}$ (9.5)
Substituting the Schrödinger
equation and its complex conjugate into
equation (9.4):
$\frac{\partial
}{\partial t}$|Ψ|2
= $\frac{i\hbar }{2m}$(Ψ*$\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}\Psi }{\partial
{{x}^{2}}}$ - $\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}{{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial {{x}^{2}}}$Ψ)
(9.6)
Resolving this equation further, we get:
$\frac{\partial
}{\partial t}$|Ψ|2
= $\frac{\partial }{\partial x}$[$\frac{i\hbar }{2m}$(Ψ*$\frac{\partial
\Psi }{\partial x}$ - $\frac{\partial {{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial x}$Ψ)] (9.7)
By substituting equation (9.7) into (9.3), the integral can then be analyzed explicitly:
$\frac{d}{dt}\int\limits_{-\infty
}^{\infty }{{}}$|Ψ(x,t)|2dx
= $\frac{i\hbar }{2m}$(Ψ*$\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}\Psi }{\partial
{{x}^{2}}}$ - $\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}{{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial {{x}^{2}}}$Ψ)|$_{-\infty
}^{\infty }$ (9.8)
However, the wave function $\Psi (x,t)$ must go to zero as x goes to infinity, therefore we have: $\frac{d}{dt}\int\limits_{-\infty }^{\infty }{{{\left| \Psi (x,t) \right|}^{2}}dx=0}$ hence that the integral is constant, i.e. independence of time. Thus the wave function stays normalized for all future time. QED
Consider the expectation
value of x for a particle in state Ψ given by:
$\left\langle x \right\rangle
=\int\limits_{-\infty }^{\infty }{x}$|Ψ(x,t)|2dx (9.9)
Equation (9.9) gives the average of measurements
performed on all particles in the state Ψ. Thus, the expectation value does not give the average of repeated
measurements on one identical system. Rather it is the average of repeated
measurements on a group of identical systems.
Due to the time dependence of Ψ, the expectation value of
x will change and it is interesting
in knowing how fast $\left\langle x \right\rangle $ will change. By taking the
derivative of equation (9.9) with respect to time, we get:
$\frac{d\left\langle x
\right\rangle }{dt}=\int{x\frac{\partial }{\partial t}}$|Ψ|2 dx
(9.10)
By replacing the term $\frac{\partial }{\partial t}$|Ψ|2
for $\frac{\partial }{\partial x}$[$\frac{i\hbar }{2m}$(Ψ*$\frac{\partial
\Psi }{\partial x}$ - $\frac{\partial {{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial x}$Ψ)] (referring
to equation (9.7)), equation (9.10) becomes:
$\frac{d\left\langle x
\right\rangle }{dt}=\frac{i\hbar }{2m}$∫ x$\frac{\partial
}{\partial x}$(Ψ*$\frac{\partial \Psi }{\partial x}$ - $\frac{\partial
{{\Psi }^{*}}}{\partial x}$Ψ) dx (9.11)
Using integration
by parts: $\int\limits_{a}^{b}{f\frac{dg}{dx}dx}=fg$|$_{a}^{b}-\int\limits_{a}^{b}{\frac{df}{dx}gdx}$;
and under the condition that the ∫ |Ψ|2 dx must be finite: Ψ and its
derivative ${}^{\partial \Psi }/{}_{\partial x}$ must go to zero at ± ∞, equation
(9.11) can be simplified:
Carrying out another integration by parts, we conclude
that:
$\frac{d\left\langle x
\right\rangle }{dt}=-\frac{i\hbar }{m}\int{{{\Psi }^{*}}\frac{\partial \Psi
}{\partial x}dx}$ (9.13)
Equation (9.13) is the velocity of the expectation value
of expectation value of x which is
not the same thing as the velocity of the particle. Since the particle doesn’t
even have a determinate position prior to the measurement, it is not even clear
what velocity means in quantum mechanics. It is just the probability of getting
a particular value of velocity. However, equation (9.13) tells us how to
calculate the expectation value of velocity straightforwardly from Ψ and for
our present purposes, we adequately could postulate that the expectation value of the velocity <v> is equal to the time
derivative of the expectation value of position <x>:
$\left\langle v \right\rangle
=\frac{d\left\langle x \right\rangle }{dt}$ (9.14)
Figure 9.1. Working out of expectation value of velocity v
$\left\langle p \right\rangle
=m\frac{d\left\langle x \right\rangle }{dt}=-i\hbar \int{\left( {{\Psi }^{*}}\frac{\partial
\Psi }{\partial x} \right)dx}$ (9.15)
To summarize, we rewrite the expressions for <x> and <p>:
$\left\langle x \right\rangle
=\int{{{\Psi }^{*}}(x)\Psi dx}$ (9.16)
$\left\langle p \right\rangle
=\int{{{\Psi }^{*}}(\frac{h}{i}\frac{\partial }{\partial x})\Psi dx}$ (9.17)
The term x that represents position and the term $\left( \frac{\hbar }{i}\frac{\partial
}{\partial x} \right)$ that represents momentum
respectively in equation (9.16) and (9.17) are the operators in quantum mechanics.
All dynamical variables can be expressed in terms of
position and momentum, for instance, kinetic energy: $T={}^{1}/{}_{2}m{{v}^{2}}={}^{{{p}^{2}}}/{}_{2m}$
. Generally, to calculate the expectation value of a quantity, the following
equation can be applied:
$\left\langle Q(x,p)
\right\rangle =\int{{{\Psi }^{*}}Q(x,\frac{\hbar }{i}\frac{\partial }{\partial
x})\Psi dx}$ (9.18)
And for kinetic energy:
$\left\langle T \right\rangle
=\frac{-{{\hbar }^{2}}}{2m}\int{{{\Psi }^{*}}\frac{{{\partial }^{2}}\Psi
}{\partial {{x}^{2}}}dx}$ (9.19)


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